Just wondering if anyone had any insight.
My wife was married previously and had a debt charged off in 1998 or 1999. The original CC company wrote it off and 7 years later her credit report is clean. I got a call 3 days ago from Capital Management Services LP in Buffalo, NY. The lady asked for my wife and when I told her she wasn't in, she proceeded to tell me my wife owes a 5000 debt. After my inital suprise, she said the last payment made was 2003 and she was willing to offer her an excellent settlement of 1600 to clear it. I said I had not a clue what she was talking about and I pay all the bills in the house. While she was on the phone, I logged into my online bill pay and the origianl payee she mentioned, is not there. I told her we would need proof from the original creditor of the debt and the amount. She said I didn't want to do that cause them I would loose the settlement offer and have to pay the full amount. A red flag went up. OK, I told her. I need to speak to my wife and we will get back to her. I asked my wife about it and she said she has not had an account from the original CC comapny since 1998 or 1999 and they have tried this before. Today we got a letter from them with the amount they say we owe. My wife pulled her credit and it is clear. No LVNV, no Capital Management, no original CC company. No red marks, no derogatory statements.
My question is this. How can they say the last payment was 2003 when I can see no payment was made at all and my wife says it has been 9 years since this was valid. Obivously they are trying to get me to pay. You guys agree?
Also...since this does not show up on her credit at all, do we have anything to worry about. My wife is very confident that this is crap and they are only trying to get her to pay anything or all of it. I am a worrier by nature. Just looking for some reasurance!!

thanks...this thread rocks!!