Ok, it seems that I've heard here that an agreement is not binding unless it's in writing. (I may have misunderstood)
Here is what happened to me one time:
I was unemployed, living with my parents, and a Telemarketer calls with an offer of free Voice Mail service for 30 days, and I would get a free Walkman Stereo. (he made it sound like it was such a great deal, and he said I would not be charged if I canceled in time) He said cancel before the 30 days were up, so I called them and told them to Cancel it (a week before the month ended) and they told me they will cancel and I won't be charged. I stopped using the service.
Anyway, a month went by and my father gets the phone bill. He was charged $29.99 for the voicemail service. (not the telephone Co's service.)
I called the voice mail service back, and you guessed it: They said they had no record of my call to cancel service. They would not take the charge off, so we contacted the phone company, and told them we refuse to pay that third party. They said they would take it off, and they did. They just said to pay the phone bill minus the $29.99 VM charge.
They did advise me that the voicemail company could try to get a CA after me, so they told me to write them a letter telling them I cannot pay it, and I was disabled, blah, blah blah. They forgave the bill.
But, is a verbal agreement enforceable?