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correct or crazy???

Date: Fri, 11/06/2009 - 07:55

Submitted by anonymous
on Fri, 11/06/2009 - 07:55

Posts: 202330 Credits: [Donate]

Total Replies: 7


ok, I have been reading thru several forums on here, and I need some claification please. maybe I just havent had enough coffee, yet. But I feel I am missing something. Ok as an example, I take out an internet payday loan for $300, with a finance charge of $90. when my loan comes due and they only take the $90 finance charge and my loan "rolls over" to the next payday, then they take out another $90 and this goes on and on. Never paying anything on the principle, unless of course I contact them and set up a paydown or pay off. this is what it states on my 3 payday loans. But what I am reading on here is that that "finance charge" could, or should be paying off my loan??? so if I borrow $300 and they hit me with a $90 finance charge 5 times, my loan should be considered paid? because I actually only owe them $390. Am I correct or crazy?

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No, you are NOT paying anything against the balance. The $90 is a "fee" to extend the loan. If you want to pay down on the balance, you would have to send them extra. That would be the $90 fee plus whatever to pay down the balance. That's how people get screwed. They end up paying $700+ or more for a $300 loan.


lrhall41

Submitted by aubrey on Fri, 11/06/2009 - 08:08

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ok, let me try and clarify my question. I KNOW the "fee" or "finance charge" does not go towards the principle. I KNOW that paying only the "fee" or "finance charge" extends my loan to the next payday. I KNOW you end up paying 10 times the original loan amount if you do not pay it off on the first installment.
my question is that the posts I have read on here do NOT state that they have paid ANYTHING towards the principle, only the "fee" or "finance charge", and that they have paid it several times and in doing that feel the loan should be satisfied. They seem to be posting that the payday loan companies just keep taking the money out and won't stop. But this is where my confusion comes in, if you are NOT paying on the principle, why would they?????????? Am I to assume that if I let it roll over until the "fee" or "finance charge" has been paid enough times to equal to my principle plus the "fee" or "finance charge" that I am legally able to stop paying them??????????
Or am I reading these posts wrong?


lrhall41

Submitted by on Fri, 11/06/2009 - 08:45

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that is correct.since most internet pdl's are not legal any so called fees go towards the loan whether the pdl likes it or not.of course they would like you,me,and everyone else to think that the"fee"can be debited until doomsday,but that isn't true.it kind of makes me sick,and laugh at the same time once someone stops their access to the money they treat the person like a criminal.they should outlaw all INTERNET PDL'S period.


lrhall41

Submitted by paulmergel on Fri, 11/06/2009 - 08:50

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THANK YOU!!! nice to know I am not going crazy!! I am so gald I started reading these posts!! now I do have a few questions. once I have reached that payback amount. I read somewhere on here about a revocation of authorization (or something like that) is there a form letter somewhere on here? and who do I send this too? the bank or the payday loan? sorry if my questions seem silly. this is all new to me and my husband and myself have 6 internet payday loans between us, plus we each have one at Amscott! We just want to get out of the cycle!!


lrhall41

Submitted by on Fri, 11/06/2009 - 09:03

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