When a CA calls (or you call them) and their phone system says "this call may be recorded, blah, blah, blah...this is considered meeting the disclosure requirement that the call is being recorded.
Obviously that meets the requirements for those state that have the 1 Party Recording Rule...so THEY can tape YOU...
In a state that is a 2 Party Recording state, if this SAME message is disclosed, does this allow BOTH PARTIES to record...ergo...meaning, I don't have to say back to the CA that "I, too, am taping this recording"?
Does any one know if Illinois is a 1 or 2 party state?