Although I have no $$ to settle my debts yet I want to ask about this as I am a bit confused from the things I've read about it.
As I understand it, let's say you settle a 100k worth of debts for 40% or 40,000. Then the remaining $60,000 gets reported to uncle sam as INCOME for the year, and you have to pay taxes on it next year - correct????
Because if that is the case, then it makes no sense for me to settle - since I will not be able to pay that tax bill (like $20,000) and I will just as bad, or worse off, than the situation I am in now. Or is there something I am not understanding????